Cardiovascular Pharmacology MCQs

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MCQs and Solution

Q1. This drug reduces blood pressure by acting centrally

  1. a) Labetalol
  2. b) Clonidine
  3. c) Enalapril
  4. d) Nifedipine

Ans: b) Clonidine

Q3.  Which is NOT correct for Phase 0 in action potential in cardiac muscle

  1. a) Depolarization phase
  2. b) opening of Na+ channel
  3. c) Repolarizing phase
  4. d) Initiating the impulse

Ans: c) Repolarizing phase

Q4. Which is not a sympatholytic drug

  1. Labetalol
  2. Prazosin
  3. Guanethidine
  4. Butoxamine

Ans: c) Guanethidine (Inhibit the vesicle release)

Labetalol- Alfa+Beta Blocker (Carvedilol, Cartelol, Bucindolol)

Prazosin- Alfa1 blocker

Butoxamine- Beta2 blocker

Q5. All of the following statements regarding angiotensin II are true EXCEPT:

  1. peptide hormone
  2. Angiotensin I is almost as potent as angiotensin II
  3. potent vasoconstrictor
  4. stimulates the secretion of aldosterone

Ans: b) Angiotensin I is almost as potent as angiotensin II

Q6. This drug is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma:

  1. Enalapril
  2. Nifedipine
  3. Propranolol
  4. Clonidine

Ans: c) Propranolol

Q7. Which drug may produce tachycardia?

  1. Propranolol
  2. Losartan
  3. Enalapril
  4. Nifedipine

Ans d) Nifedipine

Q8. Choose the group of antihypertensive drugs which diminishes the metabolism of bradykinin:

  1. CCBs
  2. Alfa blockers
  3. ACE Is
  4. Diuretics

Ans: c) ACE Is

Q9. Role of diuretics in hypertension:

  1. Inhibit the adrenergic transmission
  2. reduce blood volume and amount of Na+ ions in the vessels endothelium
  3. Inhibit the rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
  4. None

Ans: b) reduce blood volume and amount of Na+ ions in the vessels endothelium

Q10. Tick the diuretic agent having a potent, maximum and rapid effect:

  1. Furosemide
  2. Spironolactone
  3. Dichlothiazide
  4. Indapamide

Ans: a)  Furosemide

Q11. Tick potassium channel activator:

  1. Nifedipine
  2. Minoxidil
  3. Diazoxide
  4. B & C

Ans:  d) B & C

Q12. All of the following statements regarding verapamil are true EXCEPT:

  1. It blocks L-type calcium channels
  2. It increases heart rate
  3. It relaxes coronary artery smooth muscle
  4. It depresses cardiac contractility

Ans: b) It increases heart rate

Q13. Choose the vasodilator which releases NO:

  1. Nifedipine
  2. Hydralazine
  3. Minoxidil
  4. Sodium nitroprusside

Ans: d)  Sodium nitroprusside

Q14. Which of the following antianginal agents is a myotropic coronary dilator:

  1. Dipyridamole
  2. Validol
  3. Atenolol
  4. Alinidine

Ans a) Dipyridamole

Q15. The following agents are cardio selective beta1-adrenoceptor-blocking drugs labelled for use in angina, EXCEPT:

  1. Metoprolol
  2. Talinolol
  3. Atenolol
  4. Propranolol

 Ans: d) Propranolol

 Q16. The drug used in hypotensive shock:

  1. noradrenaline
  2. propranolol
  3. Dopamine
  4. Histamine

Ans: a)  noradrenaline

Q17. Indicate the vasoconstrictor of endogenous origin:

  1. Ephedrine
  2. Nitric oxide
  3. Xylometazoline
  4. Endothelin

Ans: d)  Endothelin

Q18. Which is right about digitalis:

  1. NaKATPase pump blocker
  2. +ve inotropic drug
  3. It causes hypokalamia
  4. All

 Ans: d) All

Q19. Tick the non-glycoside positive inotropic drug

  1. Digitoxin
  2. Digoxin
  3. Dobutamine
  4. Strophanthin

Ans: c) Dobutamine

 Q20. All of the following are recommended at the initial stages of treating patients with heart failure EXCEPT:

  1. Reduced salt intake
  2. Verapamil
  3. ACE inhibitors
  4. Diuretics

Ans: b) Verapamil

 Q21. All of the following statements regarding inhibitors of type III phosphodiesterase are true EXCEPT:

  1. They raise cAMP concentrations in cardiac myocytes
  2. They reduce afterload
  3. They show significant cross-tolerance with beta-receptor agonists
  4. They are associated with a significant risk for cardiac arrhythmias

Ans: c) They show significant cross-tolerance with beta-receptor agonists

Q22. All of the following effects of ACE inhibitors may be useful in treating heart failure EXCEPT:

  1. They decrease afterload
  2. They increase circulating catecholamine levels
  3. They reduce reactive myocardial hypertrophy
  4. They increase myocardial beta-1 adrenergic receptor density

Ans: b) They increase circulating catecholamine levels

Q23. This drug is a Class IC antiarrhythmic drug:

  1. Flecainide
  2. Sotalol
  3. Lidocaine
  4. Verapamil

Ans: a) Flecainide

Q24. This drug prolongs repolarization (in arrythmia):

  1. Flecainide
  2. Sotalol
  3. Lidocaine
  4. Verapamil

Ans: b)  Sotalol

 Q25. Which of the following ACE inhibitor is not a prodrug?

  1. Ramipril
  2. Enalapril
  3. Perindopril
  4. Lisinopril

Ans: b) Enalapril

Q26. Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of :

  1. Potassium
  2. Quinidine
  3. Potacium sparing diuretics
  4. Antacids

Ans: b) Quinidine

 Q27. Which is the most appropriate diuretic for treating acute pulmonary oedema?

  1. Thiazide diuretics
  2. Loop diuretics
  3. Potassium sparing diuretics
  4. Osmotic diuretic

Ans: b) Loop diuretics

Q28. Indicate the drug belonging to antagonists of heparin:

  1. a) Aspirin
  2. b) Dicumarol
  3. c) Dalteparin
  4. d) Protamine sulphate

 Ans: d) Protamine sulphate

Q29.  For digitalis-induced arrhythmias the following drug is favored:

  1. a) Verapamil
  2. b) Amiodarone
  3. c) Lidocaine
  4. d) Propanolol

Ans: c) Lidocain

 Q30. which drug is used as antihypertensive in pregnancy

  1. a) Losartan
  2. b) Enalapril
  3. c) Methyl dopa
  4. d) All

Ans c) Methyl dopa              

Q31. This drug increases lipoprotein lipase (LPL) activity in adipose tissue:

  1. a) Cholestyramine
  2. b) Lovastatin
  3. c) Nicotinic acid
  4. d) Gemfibrozil

 Ans: d) Gemfibrozil

Q32. which diuretic has an anti-androgenic effect:

  1. a) Amiloride
  2. b) Furosemide
  3. c) Hydrochlorothiazide
  4. d) Spironolacton

 Ans: d) Spironolacton

 Q33. Warfarin affects the synthesis of

  1. a) CF II
  2. b) CF VII
  3. c) CF IX
  4. d) CF X
  5. e) All

 Ans:    e) All

Q34. What is right about Clopidogrel

  1. a) inhibits ADP-dependant platelet aggregation
  2. b) inhibits COX-dependant platelet aggregation
  3. c) Antagonise Gp IIb/IIIa- dependant platelet aggregation
  4. d) All

Ans:    a) inhibits ADP-dependant platelet aggregation

Q35. Acetazolamide can be used in

  1. a) diuresis
  2. b) Glaucoma
  3. c) Both

 Ans: c) Both

 Q36. Major role of ADH (Vasopressin)

  1. a) Vasoconstriction
  2. b) enhance the water reabsorption
  3. c) enhance the expression of aquaporins channel\
  4. d) all

 Ans:    d) all

 Q37. Which is a Haematinics

  1. a) Fe
  2. b) Folic acid
  3. c) Vit B12
  4. d) all

 Ans: d) all

 Q38. A hypertensive patient received drug “Y”, which effect is abolished by Tricyclic antidepressants. So Y is a

  1. Atenolol
  2. Clonidine
  3. Losartan
  4. Tiazide

Ans: b) Clonidine

 Q39. In ECG, the P wave represent to

  1. a) Atrial depolarization
  2. b) Atrial repolarization
  3. c) Ventricular depolarization
  4. d) Ventricular repolarization

Ans:  a) Atrial depolarization

Q40. The vascular muscles relaxed by ……… (you may select >1 ans)

  1. a) IP3/Ca2+ Activation
  2. b) Rho kinase Activation
  3. c) cAMP Activation
  4. d) NO/cGMP Activation
  5. e) MLCK Activation
  6. f) MLCP Activation

Ans: c) cAMP Activation, d) NO/cGMP Activation, f) MLCP Activation

 

 

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